New ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Test, ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Authorized Certification
New ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Exam Test, ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Authorized Certification
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Our company has spent more than 10 years on compiling ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management study materials for the exam in this field, and now we are delighted to be here to share our ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management learnign guide with all of the candidates for the exam in this field. There are so many striking points of our ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Preparation exam. If you want to have a better understanding of our ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management exam braindumps, just come and have a try!
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ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Authorized Certification, ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Test Free
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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q19-Q24):
NEW QUESTION # 19
[Integrate Deployment Management with Other Practices]
A large multi-national organization uses DevOps principles to enable fast and effective development and implementation of software products. Each product team has a lot of independence, but a centralized IT governance team ensures consistency and adherence to the organization's policies. Different people within the organization have different opinions about whether deployment management should be centralized or distributed among the teams. How should the deployment management practice be implemented and managed in this organization to ensure that the practice meets their needs?
- A. A centralized deployment management team should manage and coordinate deployments for all development teams
- B. Each development team should have an independent deployment manager who owns all aspects of deployment within that team
- C. Software developers in each team should take full responsibility for deployment of software that they develop
- D. A centralized deployment management team should support the product teams by providing guidance and tooling
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a DevOps environment with independent product teams and centralized governance, ITIL 4 recommends balancing autonomy with consistency. Option C, where a centralized deployment management team supports product teams by providing guidance and tooling, aligns with this approach. It ensures that teams retain flexibility to deploy efficiently while benefiting from standardized tools, best practices, and governance, maintaining organizational alignment and reducing risks of inconsistency.
Option A (Each development team should have an independent deployment manager who owns all aspects of deployment within that team): Incorrect, as fully independent deployment managers per team could lead to inconsistent practices and tools, undermining centralized governance and creating silos.
Option B (A centralized deployment management team should manage and coordinate deployments for all development teams): Incorrect, as centralizing all deployment activities reduces team autonomy, contradicting DevOps principles of empowering teams and slowing down delivery.
Option C (A centralized deployment management team should support the product teams by providing guidance and tooling): Correct, as it supports DevOps autonomy while ensuring consistency through shared tools (e.g., CI/CD pipelines) and guidance, aligning with ITIL 4's focus on value co-creation and governance.
Option D (Software developers in each team should take full responsibility for deployment of software that they develop): Incorrect, as while developers often handle deployments in DevOps, completely bypassing a structured deployment management practice risks non-compliance with governance and inconsistent outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 20
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
What should be done if a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested for technical reasons?
- A. Only use the new model after a way to test it has been found
- B. Automate the activities of the new model before it is used
- C. Carry out test deployments to see if the model works correctly
- D. Closely monitor the first few uses of the new model
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested due to technical limitations, ITIL 4 emphasizes a risk-based approach to deployment management to ensure stability and minimize disruption. Option C, closely monitoring the first few uses of the new model, aligns with ITIL 4's guidance to proceed cautiously when full testing is not feasible. This approach allows the organization to deploy the model in a controlled environment, observe its performance, and quickly address any issues, thereby reducing risk while gathering real-world data.
Option A (Only use the new model after a way to test it has been found): While testing is ideal, delaying deployment indefinitely until a testing method is found may not be practical, especially if business needs require timely deployment. This option is overly restrictive and does not balance risk with operational demands.
Option B (Carry out test deployments to see if the model works correctly): Conducting test deployments assumes testing is possible, which contradicts the question's premise that testing cannot be done for technical reasons. This makes the option invalid.
Option C (Closely monitor the first few uses of the new model): This is the most pragmatic approach, as it allows deployment with safeguards like monitoring to mitigate risks, aligning with ITIL's focus on value delivery and risk management.
Option D (Automate the activities of the new model before it is used): Automating an untested model could amplify risks, as automation without validation may propagate errors across environments.
NEW QUESTION # 21
[Understand Roles and Responsibilities]
A fast-growing service provider is introducing separate roles of deployment manager and deployment practitioner. Which TWO activities is a deployment manager responsible for?
Ensuring that deployment records are up-to-date and correct
Prioritizing multiple deployments that require use of the same resources Ensuring deployment plans support other service management plans Capturing and verifying users' opinions on deployments
- A. 1 and 4
- B. 1 and 2
- C. 2 and 3
- D. 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
In ITIL 4, the deployment manager role focuses on strategic and coordinating activities, such as overseeing resource allocation and aligning deployment plans with broader service management objectives. The correct activities are:
Activity 2 (Prioritizing multiple deployments that require use of the same resources): A deployment manager ensures efficient resource use by prioritizing conflicting deployments, a key managerial responsibility.
Activity 3 (Ensuring deployment plans support other service management plans): The deployment manager aligns deployment activities with other practices (e.g., change enablement, release management) to ensure coherence across service management, another strategic task.
Activity 1 (Ensuring that deployment records are up-to-date and correct): This is typically a task for a deployment practitioner, who handles operational details like record-keeping, not a manager's core responsibility.
Activity 4 (Capturing and verifying users' opinions on deployments): This aligns more with practices like relationship management or service desk activities, not the deployment manager's role, which focuses on planning and execution rather than user feedback collection.
NEW QUESTION # 22
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
An IT service provider is using continuous integration and is considering the introduction of continuous delivery. Which is a benefit of this proposed change for the service provider?
- A. Code is tested iteratively and frequently
- B. Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code
- C. Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent
- D. Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Continuous delivery (CD) in ITIL 4 extends continuous integration (CI) by ensuring that every validated change is ready for deployment to production, enabling smaller and more frequent releases. The key benefit for users is that they experience changes which are smaller and more frequent (Option D), reducing risk, improving feedback cycles, and delivering value faster.
Option A (Developers spend less time fixing issues in their code): Incorrect, as while CD may reduce some issues through automation, this is not its primary benefit, and CI already includes frequent testing to catch issues early.
Option B (Code is tested iteratively and frequently): Incorrect, as iterative and frequent testing is a feature of continuous integration, not a new benefit introduced by continuous delivery.
Option C (Deployments of software builds are scripted to allow for automation): Incorrect, as scripting and automation are part of both CI and CD pipelines, not a unique benefit of introducing CD.
Option D (Users experience changes which are smaller and more frequent): Correct, as CD enables rapid, incremental releases to production, directly benefiting users with faster and less disruptive updates.
NEW QUESTION # 23
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?
- A. The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment
- B. The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments
- C. The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment
- D. The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.
NEW QUESTION # 24
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